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Cisco Channel Partner Program 700-760 Exam Free Sample Practice Questions

QUESTION 1
Which two Cisco products remediate network, cloud, and endpoint threats? (Choose two.)
A. Duo
B. Identity Services Engine
C. Stealthwatch
D. Cisco Security Connector
E. AMP for Endpoints
Correct Answer: BC
https://www.cisco.com/c/en_ae/products/security/portfolio.html#~stickynav=2

QUESTION 2
Which two attack vectors are protected by Visibility and Enforcement? (Choose two.)
A. Mobile
B. Cloud
C. Email
D. Web
E. Endpoints
Correct Answer: CD

QUESTION 3
What are two ways Cisco addresses customers\\’ growing business needs? (Choose two.)
A. Multi/hybrid cloud platforms
B. Highly-scalable DC platforms
C. Bulletproof NGFW appliances
D. Consolidated tracking and reporting
E. Multiple solution deployment choices
Correct Answer: AB

QUESTION 4
Which Cisco Security benefit is a differentiator that allows partners to plan and model their business?
A. one solution to fit every need
B. comprehensive vision for security
C. unparalleled commitment
D. best-in-class technologies
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 5
Which Cisco value is demonstrated by the fact that Cisco advanced threat solutions block emerging and persisting
threats quickly?
A. protection
B. agility
C. time-to-value
D. scalability
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 6
Where do you start to achieve true network visibility?
A. Branches
B. Fabric Level
C. OT
D. IT
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 7
Which two benefits of flexible purchasing does Cisco provide? (Choose two.)
A. Simplify the datacenter
B. Meet immediate needs
C. Roll out more solutions
D. Plan for the future
E. Reduce training needs
Correct Answer: AE

QUESTION 8
What is used to reduce attack surfaces?
A. Access
B. Remediation
C. Segmentation
D. Device trust
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 9
What are two key Cisco loT use cases? (Choose two.)
A. Mobile Utilities
B. Financial Institutions
C. Parks and Recreation
D. Industrial Security
E. Connected Health
Correct Answer: BE

QUESTION 10
Which network security product provides a unified image on an intuitive interface?
A. Next-Generation Intrusion Prevention System
B. Advanced Malware Protection
C. Cloudlock
D. Firepower Threat Defense
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 11
Which component of AMP provides the details customers need to address problems after a breach is identified?
A. Rapid remediation
B. Filesandboxmg
C. Continuous analysis
D. Context awareness
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 12
What are two common seller obstacles? (Choose two.)
A. Unresponsive potential customers
B. Overcrowded portfolios
C. Complexity of solution components
D. Fragmented solutions
E. Seller competition
Correct Answer: AD

QUESTION 13
What are two factors that influence customer loT conversations\\’? (Choose two)
A. Maturity
B. Detection
C. Motivation
D. Protection
E. Prevention
Correct Answer: CE

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LSAT Section 3: Analytical Reasoning

Vendor: Test Prep
Certifications: Test Prep Certifications
Exam Code: LSAT3-ANALYTICAL-REASONING
Exam Name: LSAT Section 3: Analytical Reasoning
Updated: Jul 02, 2020
Q&As: 60

Pass4itsure LSAT3-ANALYTICAL-REASONING Exam Questions Answers: https://www.pass4itsure.com/lsat3-analytical-reasoning.html

Test Prep Certifications LSAT3-ANALYTICAL-REASONING Exam Practice Test Questions

QUESTION 1
Five racing drivers, Alan, Bob, Chris, Don, and Eugene, enter into a contest that consists of 6 races. The results of all
six races are listed below:
Bob always finishes ahead of Chris. Alan finishes either first or last. Eugene finishes either first or last. There are no ties
in any race. Every driver finishes each race.
In each race, two points are awarded for a fifth place finish, four points for fourth, six points for third, eight points for
second, and ten points for first.
If Alan finishes first in four races, which of the following could earn a total of fewer than 26 points in the six races?
A. Bob only.
B. Chris only.
C. Don only.
D. Eugene of Chris.
E. Don or Chris.
Correct Answer: E
Eugene could only have a minimum of 28 points, since it will have four fifth-place and two first-place finishes. Bob could
only have a minimum of 36 points. Either Chris or Don could finish fourth in all six races, for a total of 24 points.

QUESTION 2
A new bank has decided to stay open only on weekends – all day Saturday and Sunday – and no other days. The bank
has hired two managers (U and V), four tellers (W,X,Y, and Z), and two operation officers (S and T), for a total of exactly
eight full-time employees. No part-time employees are hired. Each employee works a complete day when working. A
manager must be on duty each day. The managers cannot work on the same day. At least two tellers must be working
on the same day. W and X will not work on the same day. S and Z will only work on Saturday. No employee can work
on consecutive days, but each employee must work on Saturday or Sunday.
Which of the following could be false?
A. If U works on Saturday, then V works on Sunday.
B. If X works on Saturday, then W works on Sunday.
C. T can work either day.
D. If W works on Saturday and Y works on Sunday, then X works on Sunday.
E. If U works on Sunday, then X works on Saturday.
Correct Answer: E
From the original information, a manager must be on duty each day and the managers cannot work on the same day.
Therefore, option [If U works on Saturday, then V works on Sunday.] must be true. Option [If U works on Sunday, then X works on Saturday.] does not have to be true, since U\\’s schedule has no bearing on X\\’s schedule. Since W and X will
not work on the same day, Option [If X works on Saturday, then W works on Sunday.] must also be true. There is no
restriction placed on T.

QUESTION 3
Five racing drivers, Alan, Bob, Chris, Don, and Eugene, enter into a contest that consists of 6 races. The results of all
six races are listed below:
Bob always finishes ahead of Chris. Alan finishes either first or last. Eugene finishes either first or last. There are no ties
in any race. Every driver finishes each race.
In each race, two points are awarded for a fifth place finish, four points for fourth, six points for third, eight points for
second, and ten points for first.
If Eugene\\’s total for the six races is 36 points, which of the following must be true?
A. Bob\\’s total is more than 36 points.
B. Chris\\’s total is more than 36 points.
C. Alan\\’s total is 36 points.
D. Don\\’s total is less than 36 points.
E. Don\\’s total is 36 points.
Correct Answer: C
If Eugene has 36 points, then he must have 3 first place finishes and 3 last place finishes, because he finishes first or
last in every race. Therefore, Alan must also have 3 first place finishes and 3 last place finishes for a total of 36 points.
Some of the other options may be true, but none of them are required.

QUESTION 4
Seven friends, Abe, Bob, Chad, Dolly, Elisa, Frank, and Gregory sit in a VIP enclosure of a stadium to watch a football
match. The seats in the enclosure form a 3 x 3 matrix, i.e. 3 rows (front, middle and last) with 3 seats in each row. The
following information is known:
Chad sits immediately beside Dolly Dolly sits in a row immediately behind the row in which Abe is sitting There is no one
sitting on one side of Chad None of Elisa or Gregory sits immediately beside Abe Bob sits in the last row
Which of the following statements is/are necessary to uniquely determine the seating arrangement of the seven
friends?
A. Abe sits in the same column as Chad and Bob with no one to his right
B. There is no person sitting in front of Dolly
C. There is no person sitting in front of Elisa
D. Abe sits in the same column as Chad and Bob with no one to his right and Elisa has no person sitting in front of her
E. Abe sits in the same column as Chad and Bob with no one to the right of Abe or Dolly
Correct Answer: D
Working with the options, we have:
Option: Abe sits in the same column as Chad and Bob with no one to his right
Since A is in the middle of the front row, E and G must be sitting in the last row. Thus, F must be sitting in the front row,
to the left of A.
Thus, we have the following arrangement:

However, the position of D, E and G are not fixed.

QUESTION 5
In a school, 9 students, Andrew, Bach, Caesar, Drew, Elena, Fischer, Grant, Hughes, and Ileana are selected to form 3
debate teams
Correct Answer: A
Working with the options, we have:
Option [Bach and Elena]: We know from (i) and (ii) that A and B are together, and E and G are together. Thus, if B and
E are together, the team would have 4 members, which is not possible

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Registry Examination for Advanced Pulmonary Function Technologists

Vendor: Test Prep
Certifications: Test Prep Certifications
Exam Code: RPFT
Exam Name: Registry Examination for Advanced Pulmonary Function Technologists
Updated: Jul 02, 2020
Q&As: 111

Pass4itsure RPFT Exam Questions Answers: https://www.pass4itsure.com/rpft.html

Test Prep Certifications RPFT Exam Practice Test Questions

QUESTION 1

Which of the above patterns illustrates the effect of increasing temperature in the plethysmograph during airways
resistance measurement?
A. 4
B. 3
C. 2
D. 1
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 2
Which of the following is a suitable policy for following Standard Precautions in a pulmonary function laboratory?
A. Eye protection is required when obtaining ABGs from patients with hepatitis.
B. Reusable mouthpieces should be disposed when a patient has a history of tuberculosis.
C. Gloves are optional when obtaining arterial blood samples using a kit
D. Reusable mouthpieces should be disinfected between each patient.
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 3
Airways resistance and specific conductance tests are requested for a 7-year-old child with asthma. Which of the
following techniques is preferred?
A. Panting with body plethysmography
B. Quiet breathing with body plethysmography
C. Interrupter
D. Oscillation
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 4
While setting up an exercise laboratory in a city with an altitude of 8,600 ft (2,775 m), a pulmonary function technologist
notices the fuel cell O2 analyzer is displaying 15.2%. Which of the following is the best for this finding?
A. This exercise system will not work at high altitude.
B. The analyzer is responding to P1O2.
C. F1O2 decreases with increasing altitude.
D. The fuel cell needs to be changed.
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 5
A pulmonary function laboratory routinely tests five subjects as biologic controls. Acceptable instrument performance
over time is indicated when measurements
A. For each individual are within 2 standard deviations of the mean of previous measurements for each individual.
B. For an individual are within 2 standard deviations of the mean of those for the group.
C. Of the group as a whole agree with those predicted by linear regression for changes in age.
D. Are within the 95% confidence interval predicted for an individual being tested.
Correct Answer: D

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SAT Section 2: Mathematics

Vendor: Test Prep
Certifications: Test Prep Certifications
Exam Code: SAT2-MATHEMATICS
Exam Name: SAT Section 2: Mathematics
Updated: Jul 02, 2020
Q&As: 60

Test Prep Certifications SAT2-MATHEMATICS Exam Practice Test Questions

QUESTION 1
SIMULATION
Point A of rectangle ABCD is located at (–3, 12) and point C is located at (9,5).What is the area of rectangle ABCD?
A. 84
Correct Answer: A
Explanation:
If point A is located at (–3,12) and point C is located at (9,5), that means that either point B or point D has the
coordinates (–3,5) and the other has the coordinates (9,12). The difference between the different x values is 9 – (–3) =
12 and the difference between the different y values is 12 – 5 = 7. The length of the rectangle is 12 units and the width
of the rectangle is seven units. The area of a rectangle is equal to its length multiplied by its width, so the area of ABCD
= (12)(7) = 84 square units.

QUESTION 2
What two values are not in the domain of

A. –3, 12
B. 3, –12
C. –6, 6
D. –6, 36
E. 9, 36
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 3
The number p is greater than 0, a multiple of 6, and a factor of 180. How many possibilities are there for the value of p?
A. 7
B. 8
C. 9
D. 10
E. 11
Correct Answer: B
The positive factors of 180 (the positive numbers that divide evenly into 180) are 1, 2, 3, 4, 5, 6, 9, 10, 12, 15, 18, 20,
30, 36, 45, 60, 90, and 180. Of these numbers, 8 (6, 12, 18, 30, 36, 60, 90, and 180) are multiples of 6.

QUESTION 4
Greg has nine paintings. The Hickory Museum has enough space to display three of them. From how many different
sets of three paintings does Greg have to choose?
A. 27
B. 56
C. 84
D. 168
E. 504
Correct Answer: C
Be careful not to count the same set of three paintings more than once — order is not important. A nine-choose-three
combination is equal to

QUESTION 5
The point (2, 1) is the midpoint of a line with endpoints at (?,3) and
A. (–3,4)
B. (–7,2)
C. (7,1)
D. (9,–1)
E. (–10, 3)
Correct Answer: D
The midpoint of a line is equal to the average x-coordinates and the average y-coordinates of the line\\’s endpoints:

The other endpoint of this line is at (9,–1).

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Texas Commission on Law Enforcement Officers Standards and Education

Vendor: Test Prep
Certifications: Test Prep Certifications
Exam Code: TCLEOSE
Exam Name: Texas Commission on Law Enforcement Officers Standards and Education
Updated: Jul 01, 2020
Q&As: 641

Test Prep Certifications TCLEOSE Exam Practice Test Questions

QUESTION 1
The theory behind problem-oriented policing is:
A. that underlying conditions create problems
B. policing is a calling rather than a profession
C. community standards are the best standards to use in policing
D. crime is cyclic and police efforts in the past have not adequately dealt with them
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 2
Delinquent Conduct is conduct, including traffic offenses, that violates the Penal Laws of this State.
A. True
B. False
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 3
A person who disposes of liter, such as paper cups or cartons from a fast food restaurant, on the public highway in a
small amount (less than 15 pounds) has committed an offense that is:
A. class A misdemeanor
B. class B misdemeanor
C. class C misdemeanor
D. state jail felony
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 4
Under the incident-driven (reactive) police system, police would:
A. work with citizens to correct conditions that generate problems
B. work with the public in determining what physical or social conditions create a problem
C. work with people involved in identifying what other agencies might be able to assist them in correcting the problem
D. return to the location and take offense reports as incidents continue
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 5
Shipping papers on a load of a hazardous material do not have to be carried in the vehicle as long as the transport
vehicle is displaying properly marked placards:
A. true
B. false
Correct Answer: B

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Microsoft MCSD: App Builder 70-487 certification exam

Competitors yearning for the Microsoft 70-487 confirmation should have exhaustive information and involvement with the accompanying zones.

Essentials for the test

• Accessing Data (20-25%)
• Querying and Manipulating Data by Using the Entity Framework (20-25%)
• Creating and Consuming Web API-based services (20-25%)
• Designing and Implementing Web Services (15-20%)
• Deploying Web Applications and Services (15-20%)

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Microsoft MCSD: App Builder 70-487 practice question 1-13

QUESTION 1
DRAG DROP
Historical flight information data will be stored in Windows Azure Table Storage using the FlightInfo class as the table
entity.
There are millions of entries in the table. Queries for historical flight information specify a set of airlines to search and
whether the query should return only late flights. Results should be ordered by flight name.
You need to specify which properties of the FlightInfo class should be used at the partition and row keys to ensure that
query results are returned as quickly as possible.
What should you do? (To answer, drag the appropriate properties to the correct location or locations in the answer area.
Each property may be used once, more than once, or not at all. You may need to drag the split bar between panes or
scroll to view content.)

QUESTION 2
You develop an application. You are using the ServiceModel Metadata Utility Tool (svcutil.exe) to generate service
bindings.
The service bindings must use stringent security and require full control over the Windows Communication Foundation
(WCF) messaging stack.
You need to configure the service bindings.
Which values should you use? To answer, configure the appropriate options in the dialog box in the answer area;
NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point.
Hot Area:

Correct Answer:

Box 1: WSHttpBinding
A secure and interoperable binding that is suitable for non-duplex service contracts.
Incorrect: Always select a binding that includes security. By default, all bindings except the element have security
enabled.
Box 2: Sign
Sign. The protected part is digitally signed. This ensures detection of any tampering with the protected message part.
Box 3:
References:
https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/dotnet/framework/wcf/system-provided-bindings
https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/dotnet/framework/wcf/understanding-protection-level

QUESTION 3
You are creating an application that retrieves Microsoft SQL Server data from two tables named Product and
ProductModel.
You need to store in two separate lists all the names of the products and the product models for later use by the
application.
How should you complete the code? To answer, select the appropriate options in the answer area.
NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point.
Hot Area:

Correct Answer:

QUESTION 4
You develop an ASP.NET Core microservice on a Windows Docker image. The code for this resides in a VSTS Git
repository.
You create an Azure Service Fabric cluster connection. Your build engineer requires that all continuous integration build
definitions must be approved before release definitions are created.
You need to enable continuous integration for the microservice.
Which three actions should you perform in sequence? To answer, move the appropriate actions from the list of actions
to answer area and arrange them in the correct order.
Select and Place:

Correct Answer:

Step 1: Enable the Continuous Integration trigger To make sure that DevOps picks up new commits and builds them, go
to the Triggers tab and enable the Enable continuous integration checkbox. Step 2: Create a build definition by using the
Service Fabric Application template Developers and testers can easily and quickly provision production-like dev and test
environments based on Docker by using templates from Azure. Step 3: Add a task with the command “docker deploy” in
the build definition Thanks to the Microsoft VSTS Docker Deploy task shown in figure, you can now also deploy to
DC/OS by just using your familiar docker-compose.yml file because Microsoft will be performing that “translation” for
you (from your dockercompose.yml file to other formats needed by DC/OS).

QUESTION 5
Note: This question is part of a series of questions that present the same scenario. Each question in the series contains
a unique solution that might meet the stated goals. Some question sets might have more than one correct solution,
while
others might not have a correct solution.
After you answer a question in this section, you will NOT be able to return to it. As a result, these questions will not
appear in the review screen.
You have a web application in a Docker container image. You set the tag for the image as myApp. You plan to deploy
the application to Azure Container Services.
You run the following commands. All commands complete successfully.

You need to ensure that the image can be run on an Azure Container Service cluster. Solution: You run the following
commands:

Does the solution meet the goal?
A. Yes
B. No
Correct Answer: B
First tag the image, and the push it into your private registry.
References: https://medium.com/@pjbgf/azure-kubernetes-service-aks-pulling-private-container-images-from-azurecontainer-registry-acr-9c3e0a0a13f2

QUESTION 6
You are developing a Windows Communication Foundation (WCF) service for a company. The service will be used for
bidirectional communications between the company\\’s physical offices.
You plan to implement Azure Service Bus.
You need to configure the WCF service.
Which type of binding should you use?
A. BasicHttpBinding
B. NetTcpRelayBinding
C. NetTcpBinding
D. NetEventRelayBinding
Correct Answer: B
References: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/service-busrelay/service-bus-relay-tutorial

QUESTION 7
You have a Microsoft Visual Studio project named Project1 that is deployed as an Azure web app. The Azure web app
uses an Azure SQL Database.
You plan to deploy updates to the Azure web app by using a Web Deploy Package.
The password for the Azure SQL Database was changed since you first published the Azure web app.
You need to deploy the package by using Windows PowerShell.
Which file should you modify before running the PowerShell deployment script?
A. WebApiConfig.cs from the App_Start folder
B. IdentityConfig.cs from the App_Start folder
C. App.config from the Web Application folder
D. Project1-waws-dev.json from the Configurations folder
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 8
You are updating an existing multitenant ASP.NET MVC application for medical clinics. The application aggressively
uses output caching to improve performance by caching content for 36 hours. The application uses a query string
parameter
named “clinicID” that contains the clinic that the user is currently viewing.
Users report that they are occasionally seeing data for the wrong clinic. Users also report that sensitive data is stored in
the browser cache folder on their computers.
You need to configure web.config to resolve the reported problems.
You have the following markup:

Which markup segments should you include in Target 1, Target 2 and Target 3 to complete the markup? (To answer,
select the correct markup segment from each drop-down list in the answer area.)
Hot Area:

The application must be deployed from Team Foundation Server after a successful build is completed. The Process tab
of the Build Definition screen is shown in the exhibit. (Click the Exhibit button.)

QUESTION 9
You are developing an ASP.NET MVC application that reads and writes data from a SQL Server database.
You need to prevent the application from reading data that is locked by other transactions. You also need to prevent
exclusive range locks.
Which isolation level should you use?
A. ReadCommitted
B. Serializable
C. Repeatable
D. ReadUncommitted
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 10
You are developing an ASP.NET MVC application. The application has a page that updates an image stored in a
database. Members of the EntityClient namespace are used to access an Entity Framework data model. Images and
associated
metadata are stored in a single database table.
You need to run a single query that updates an image and associated metadata in the database while returning only the
number of affected rows.
Which method of the EntityCommand type should you use?
A. ExecuteScalar()
B. ExecuteDbDataReader()
C. ExecuteReader()
D. ExecuteNonQuery()
Correct Answer: D
EntityCommand.ExecuteNonQuery method executes the current command, and returns the number of rows affected.
Incorrect Answers:
A: ExecuteScalar() executes the command, and returns the first column of the first row in the result set. Additional
columns or rows are ignored.
References: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/dotnet/api/system.data.entityclient.entitycommand.executenonquery
https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/dotnet/api/system.data.entityclient.entitycommand.executescalar

QUESTION 11
You deploy a RESTful ASP.NET Web API to manage order processing.
You are developing an Azure App Services Web App to consume the API and allow customers to order products. You
use the HttpClient object to process order entries. The API throws SocketException errors when the Web App
experiences
a high volume of concurrent users.
You need to resolve the errors.
What should you do?
A. Implement a Using statement block when declaring the HttpClient object.
B. Increase the value of the Timeout property when declaring the HttpClient object.
C. Use the static modifier to declare the HttpClient object.
D. Create a new HttpClient instance for each API request and use asynchronous method calls.
Correct Answer: C
If the class that wraps the external resource is shareable and thread-safe, create a shared singleton instance or a pool
of reusable instances of the class.
The following example uses a static HttpClient instance, thus sharing the connection across all requests.
public class SingleHttpClientInstanceController : ApiController {
private static readonly HttpClient httpClient;
static SingleHttpClientInstanceController()
{
httpClient = new HttpClient();
}
// This method uses the shared instance of HttpClient for every call to GetProductAsync. public async Task
GetProductAsync(string id) {
var hostName = HttpContext.Current.Request.Url.Host; var result = await
httpClient.GetStringAsync(string.Format(“http://{0}:8080/api/…”, hostName));
return new Product { Name = result };
}
}
References: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/architecture/antipatterns/improper-instantiation/

QUESTION 12
You are creating a WCF service.
The service endpoints must be exposed to the Windows Azure Service Bus. The service bus has a namespace named
RestaurantSB. The key provider is “owner”.
You need to modify the web.config file to expose the endpoints.
How should you modify the file? (To answer, drag the appropriate attributes to the correct location or locations in the
answer area. Each attribute may be used once, more than once, or not at all. You may need to drag the split bar
between
panes or scroll to view content.)
Select and Place:

Correct Answer:

QUESTION 13
You are configuring a web application for deployment.
You need to create a SetParameters.xml file to configure the IIS application pool.
You have the following markup:

Which configuration values should you include in Target 1 and Target 2 to complete the markup? (To answer, drag the
appropriate configuration values to the correct targets in the answer area. Each configuration value may be used once,
more than once, or not at all. You may need to drag the split bar between panes or scroll to view content.)
Select and Place:

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QUESTION 1
A student wishes to share contacts with another student\\’s mobile device. Which of the following would be the easiest
method to use?
A. Network attached storage
B. Bluetooth sharing
C. Local hard drive
D. Peer-to-Peer network
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 2
You are responsible for technical support at a hospital. Recently, all computers have been upgraded to Windows Vista
64 bit. However, you have a particular custom application that runs only in 32 bit.
What should you do?
A. You will have to uninstall the upgraded operating system.
B. Use compatibility mode to run the 32-bit application.
C. You will need a 32-bit version of Vista, not 64 bit.
D. You will need to get the upgraded 64-bit version of the application.
Correct Answer: B
You can right-click on a programs icon and go to properties. There you will find a compatibility mode tab. This will allow
you to run individual programs in 32 bit. Answer options C and A are incorrect. You can run the 32-bit application on the
64 bit Vista using certain applications.
Answer option D is incorrect. Software vendors do not immediately release new products for newer versions of
Windows.
Reference: http://www.howtogeek.com/howto/windows-vista/using-windows-vista- compatibilitymode/

QUESTION 3
A user, Ann, calls the manufacturer of a software product she purchased, but is denied assistance because the product
is no longer supported.
Which of the following options is a BEST next choice?
A. P2P software sharing service
B. Original instruction manual
C. Online user forum
D. PC manufacturer\\’s website
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 4
Which of the following operating systems is available for free and can be modified by anyone?
A. Windows
B. Linux
C. Mac OS
D. Chrome OS
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 5
Ann, a user, has an external monitor that will not turn on. Her laptop has activity lights and is plugged into the same
power strip.
Which of the following should be checked FIRST to begin troubleshooting this issue?
A. The power strip
B. The monitor video cable
C. The laptop power cable
D. The monitor power cable
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 6
Joe, a user, has many applications on his computer and is trying to use software management best practices.
Which of the following should he consider?
A. Install a desktop cleanup application.
B. Uninstall unneeded applications.
C. Load each application one at a time.
D. Manage the use of internal memory.
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 7
When setting up a new device, there are multiple features available that will never be used. Which of the following
should the user do to make the new device more secure?
A. Make all users administrators.
B. Remove or disable the unnecessary features.
C. Install a password manager on the device.
D. Make all users guests.
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 8
By default, which of the following types of operating systems can automatically detect a user\\’s location while the user
is traveling in a bus?
A. Server
B. Desktop workstation
C. Virtual server
D. Mobile
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 9
A technician needs to troubleshoot a user\\’s computer. The user leaves personal credentials written on a piece of paper
for the technician. Which of the following principles has the user violated?
A. Password confidentiality
B. Password complexity
C. Password reuse
D. Password expiration
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 10
Which of the following types of attacks entices a user to disclose personal information such as social security number,
bank account details, or credit card number?
A. Password guessing attack
B. Spoofing
C. Phishing
D. Replay attack
Correct Answer: C
Phishing is a type of scam that entice a user to disclose personal information such as social security number, bank
account details, or credit card number. An example of phishing attack is a fraudulent e-mail that appears to come from a
user\\’s bank asking to change his online banking password. When the user clicks the link available on the e-mail, it
directs him to a phishing site which replicates the original bank site. The phishing site lures the user to provide his
personal information. Answer option B is incorrect. Spoofing is a technique that makes a transmission appear to have
come from an authentic source by forging the IP address, email address, caller ID, etc. In IP spoofing, a hacker modifies
packet headers by using someone else\\’s IP address to his identity. However, spoofing cannot be used while surfing
the Internet, chatting on- line, etc. because forging the source IP address causes the responses to be misdirected.
Answer option D is incorrect. Replay attack is a type of attack in which attackers capture packets containing passwords
or digital signatures whenever packets pass between two hosts on a network. In an attempt to obtain an authenticated
connection, the attackers then resend the captured packet to the system. Answer option A is incorrect. A password
guessing attack occurs when an unauthorized user tries to log on repeatedly to a computer or network by guessing
usernames and passwords. Many password guessing programs that attempt to break passwords are available on the
Internet. Following are the types of password guessing attacks: Brute force attack Dictionary attack Reference:
“http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Phishing“

QUESTION 11
Which of the following statements about the DVI-D connector are true? Each correct answer represents a complete
solution. Choose three.
A. It is used only for digital signal connections.
B. Its single link connector contains 18 pins.
C. It is used for both digital and analog signal connections.
D. Its dual link connector contains 24 pins.
Correct Answer: ABD
The DVI-D is a type of DVI connector. This connector is used only for digital signal connections. DVI-D connectors come
in dual and single links. The dual link connector contains 24 pins, whereas the single link connector comes with 18 pins.
DVI stands for Digital Visual Interface. It is a standard for high speed, high resolution digital display invented by Digital
Display Working Group (DDWG). DVI accommodates analog and digital interfaces with a single connector. New video
cards have DVI as well as VGA ports built into them. Most of LCD monitors come with a 15-pin VGA connection cable,
even if they are capable of handling digital signals coming from DVI connections. However, some monitors come with
both
types of cables. DVI has three main categories of connectors. They are: DVI-A, DVI-D, and DVI-I. DVI-A is an analogonly connector, DVI-D is a digital-only connector, and DVI-I is an analog/digital connector. DVI-D and DVI-I connectors
are
of two types: single link and dual link. DVI supports UXGA and HDTV with a single set of links. Higher resolutions such
as 1920 x 1080, 2048 x 1536, or more can be supported with dual links.
Answer option C is incorrect. The DVI-I connector supports both digital and analog signal connections.
Reference: “http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/DVI“

QUESTION 12
Which of the following computer components are used to store data? (Select TWO).
A. GPU
B. HDD
C. RAM
D. NIC
E. CPU
Correct Answer: BC

QUESTION 13
Which of the following statements about Bluetooth are true?
Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose two.
A. It forms a network whenever two Bluetooth devices come within a range of ten meters.
B. It has a maximum transmission range of 200 meters.
C. It does not require a line-of-sight connection between devices.
D. It requires a line-of-sight connection between devices.
Correct Answer: AC
Bluetooth is a standard for very low powered and short-range radio connections. As a radio technology, it does not
require a line-of-sight connection as an infrared connection does. Bluetooth is used to link Personal Digital Assistant
(PDA),
mobile phones, and laptops, and provides them with Internet access via hot spots. It uses the 2.4 Ghz spectrums with a
data transfer rate of about 1
Mbps. Bluetooth networks are not permanent as compared to other networks where a central communication point is
needed such as a hub or a router. A Bluetooth network can be formed when two Bluetooth devices are within a range of
ten
meters, enabling them to communicate directly with each other. This dynamically created network is known as a
piconet. A Bluetooth-enabled device can support up to seven other Bluetooth devices in a master-slave relationship; the
first
Bluetooth device is the master, and all the other devices are slaves that communicate with the master in one piconet.
The maximum transmission range of Bluetooth is around 10 meters.
Answer option D is incorrect. The infrared devices require a line-of-sight connection between devices.
Answer option B is incorrect. The maximum transmission range of Bluetooth is around 10 meters.
Reference: “http://www.bluetooth.com/bluetooth/“

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In an IaaS model, to which of the following methodologies would the client apply a list of OS patches, assuming
approval from CAB has been given?
A. Using a patch management system, identify the hypervisor type, select a group of hypervisors to be patched, and
perform a rolling application of patches.
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Exam By:Cisco

Exam Code:210-060

Exam Name:Implementing Cisco Collaboration Devices (CICD)

Related Certification(s):CCNA Collaboration

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QUESTION 1
An engineer is configuring the Cisco Unified Communications Manager disaster recovery system. Which three
statements about the disaster recovery system are true? (Choose three.)
A. It requires the use of schedules for backups.
B. Backup files are encrypted using the cluster security password.
C. If the backup device is listed in a backup schedule, it cannot be manually deleted.
D. If the backup does not complete within 40 hours, the backup times out.
E. Archiving backups to tape drives is supported.
F. SSL is used between the master and local agents.
Correct Answer: BCE

QUESTION 2
Which Cisco Unified Communications Manager plug in allows administrators to proactively monitor the overall health of
their Cisco cluster?
A. RTMT
B. Cisco AXL Toolkit
C. Cisco CTL Client
D. Cisco JTAPI
E. Cisco TAPS
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 3
Which CAR module report provides key information to determine if an additional gateway is needed?
A. gateway utilization
B. gateway summary
C. gateway detail
D. gateway and line group utilization
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 4
Which three methods can an engineer use to create users in Cisco Unity Connection? (Choose three.)
A. Local
B. Cisco Unified Presence Server
C. Cisco Unified Communications Manager
D. LDAP
E. TMS
F. Outlook
Correct Answer: ACD

QUESTION 5
IP WAN failure has occurred. Which two configurations must be made to allow calls to or from an IP phone at a branch
location to complete to a destination outside of that branch? (Choose two.)
A. Survivable Remote Site Telephony is configured on the branch router.
B. LAN failover configuration is set to Survivable Remote Site Telephony.
C. Call Forward UnRegistered option is configured on each branch phone profile.
D. POTS WAN failover is set to Survivable Remote Site Telephony.
E. An ISDN is configured as a primary survivable backup site
Correct Answer: CE
Reference: https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/voice_ip_comm/cucm/srnd/collab10/collab10/models.html

QUESTION 6
What is the admin profile used for supervisor to modify or configure the recorded messages of customer employees?
A. Annunciator admin
B. Recordings admin
C. Remote admin
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 7
CDR/CMR Reporting is being enabled on Cisco Unified Communications Manager. As part of this process, which two
service parameters must be activated? (Choose two.)
A. Cisco CAR Web Service
B. CDR Enabled Flag
C. Cisco Serviceability Reporter
D. Call Diagnostics Enabled
E. Statistics Enabled
Correct Answer: BD

QUESTION 8
Which address is required to create a video endpoint in Cisco Unified Communications Manager?
A. MAC
B. IP
C. E.164
D. SIP URI
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 9
An engineer is adding four cordless analog phones to Cisco Unified Communications Manager. Which solution best
meets this requirement?
A. Cisco VG202XM Analog Voice Gateway
B. Cisco VG204XM Analog Voice Gateway
C. Cisco VG224 Analog Voice Gateway
D. Cisco VG350 Analog Voice Gateway
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 10
A voice engineer wants to monitor system activities using the RTMT tool.
Which step is next after navigating to Cisco Unified Reporting?
A. system > scheduler > CDR
B. system reports > unified CM data summary > generate report
C. system > tools > reports
D. tools > CDR analysis and reporting
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 11
Which port is the default port for SCCP call signaling on Cisco Unified Communications Manager?
A. 2000
B. 2443
C. 5060
D. 5061
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 12
Which Cisco Unified Communications Manager system report shows high and low call volume patterns?
A. CAR report
B. QoS by Gateway
C. QoS by call types
D. Traffic summary
E. Traffic summary by extension
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 13
Which protocol is transmitted by Cisco Unified Personal Communicator and connects to Cisco Unity Connection to
retrieve and manage a list of voice messages for the user?
A. TCP
B. UDP
C. HTTP
D. IMAP
Correct Answer: D

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ExamBy:Cisco
ExamCode:700-751
ExamName:Express Specialization
RelatedCertification(s):Cisco Other Certification

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QUESTION 1
How does Catalyst Access Switching provide two improved workforce experiences? (Choose two.)
A. Flexible workspace
B. Manual configuration of end devices
C. Core data center deployments
D. Internet of things, such as flexible workspace (open office, branch office, conference and classrooms)
E. Controller-based management
Correct Answer: CD

QUESTION 2
Which two statements describe how Cisco can achieve Threat Centric Defense? (Choose two.)
A. Cisco applications constantly scan the environment and analyze outputs to gain a more comprehensive view of
potential threats
B. Limit secure access to growing set of Cloud applications
C. Cisco delivers a common platform across network, infrastructure, appliances and the cloud
D. Cisco network analytics provides visibility and real-time awareness across the entire network by leveraging anomaly
detection and network telemetry
E. Cisco offers the industry\\’s broadest set of enforcement and remediation options for usage control to accelerate
deployment and unify management
Correct Answer: DE

QUESTION 3
Which is the range of users is supported by the Business Edition 4000 (BE4000)?
A. 100-120
B. 10-120
C. 1000-1200
D. 10-200
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 4
Which are two main features enabled by Catalyst 3650CX and the Cisco Catalyst 2960L in education? (Choose two.)
A. Interactive white board
B. POS/MICROS
C. IP camera
D. Classroom polling
E. Display/E-banner
Correct Answer: BD

QUESTION 5
Which two statements proves that Cisco USC C125 M5 rack server node provides more performance? (Choose two.)
A. 188% more cores per rack than our most dense rack servers
B. 20% more cores per rack than our most dense rack servers
C. 20% more storage per rack than our most dense rack servers
D. 50% more servers per rack than our most dense rack servers
E. 128% more cores per rack than our most dense rack servers
Correct Answer: BE

QUESTION 6
Which three statements describe Cisco Aironet 1815 Series Access Points? (Choose three.)
A. The most cost-efficient offering designed for SMB in the Cisco Wireless AP portfolio (less than $5/AP/month)
B. An ideal solution for large organizations
C. Offers next-generation 3×3 MIMO with Wave 2 802.11ac
D. Easy to deploy and manage with Cisco Mobility Express
E. Increases total cost of ownership while delivering advanced features like 802.11ac Wave 2
F. Ideal for organizations looking to address growth but have budget restrictions
Correct Answer: CDF

QUESTION 7
Which two characteristics differentiate the Meraki Dashboard from competing network management interfaces?
(Choose two.)
A. Centralized single pane of glass for access and management
B. Instantaneous access to virtualized applications
C. Built-in live chat for on-demand troubleshooting support
D. Intuitive cloud-based user interface
E. Comprehensive aggregator of multi-vendor networks
Correct Answer: AD

QUESTION 8
Which two Cisco security solutions provide customers with reliable visibility and control to facility management of their
entire environment? (Choose two.)
A. Cisco offers controls for Data Loss Prevention (DLP) with more than 100 predefined policies covering government,
private sector regulations, and custom specific regulations
B. Cisco allows customers to pick the solutions that are right for their business to address threats specific to their
environment
C. Cisco provides enhanced threat awareness by compiling billions of worldwide daily transactions through cloud-based
threat intelligence
D. Cisco Talos is the industry leading threat intelligence organization
E. Cisco security Manager and Firepower Management Center provide centralized management options for NGFW,
NGIPS and VPN
Correct Answer: CE

QUESTION 9
Which two features of the Cisco catalyst 1100 ISR router deliver a high performance and high-quality experience?
(Choose two.)
A. Mobility express to simplify wireless deployment and operation
B. Application hosting
C. 802.11ac Wi-Fi support
D. WAN and application optimization with WAAS
E. Unified communications with series build apps for Cisco TDM
Correct Answer: AC

QUESTION 10
How is an Organization defined within the context of the Meraki Dashboard?
A. It serves as the boundary of the account\\’s administrative domain, including license, inventory, and user
management.
B. It is defined by the user\\’s network construct and categorized as either small-medium enterprise (SME), campus, or a
distributed enterprise.
C. It contains Cisco Meraki devices, their configurations, statistics, and any client-device information.
D. It consists of multiple service provider resources, including support ticket management and API sandboxes.
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 11
Which two statements best highlight Cisco\\’s commitment to partners and customers? (Choose two.)
A. Cisco leads in the invention and development of the industry\\’s most advanced machine learning platform.
B. Cisco\\’s investment in RandD to maintain first-to-market approach for innovative technologies and solutions.
C. Cisco shapes the future of the Internet by creating opportunity for investors and ecosystem partners.
D. Cisco has the most comprehensive portfolio in the networking industry to help connect, collaborate, compute, and
protect your customer\\’s business.
E. Cisco works closely with leading research institutions and lets them takes the lead in the development of enterprise
security solutions.
Correct Answer: BD

QUESTION 12
What is the key architectural component that allows Cisco Meraki\\’s data centers to be fully HIPAA and PCI compliant?
A. Layer 7 application fingerprinting
B. Controller and server-free design
C. Out-of-band control plane
D. Non-existent command line interface
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 13
Which three products are in the Cisco Calling portfolio? (Choose three.)
A. Unified Communications Manager
B. Webex Calling
C. Business Edition
D. Skype for Business
E. Mobility Express
F. IP Office
Correct Answer: ABC

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ExamCode:500−551

ExamName:CiscoNetworking:On−Premiseand Cloud Solutions

RelatedCertification(s):Express Networking Specialization

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4. Practice, practice, practice

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QUESTION 1
On which type of Cisco switching solution is the Cisco 2960L series switch an example?
A. enterprise-class on-premises
B. business-class on-premises
C. enterprise-class off-premises
D. cloud-managed
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 2
Which Cisco SMB wireless access point is recommended for customers with 50 to 250 users?
A. WAP300 Series
B. WAP500 Series
C. WAP200 Series
D. WAP100 Series
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 3
Which statement about the Cisco Umbrella Branch feature on Cisco SMB routers is true?
A. It gives users access to resources as they move in mobile or virtualized networks.
B. It blocks requests to malicious domains and IPs before a connection is ever made.
C. It offers signature-based intrusion detection for regulatory compliance.
D. It provides a straightforward method for traffic segmentation in guest Wi-Fi use cases.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 4
Which three profit drivers are most important when selling Cisco security? (Choose three.)
A. emphasizing product and service specs and capabilities
B. becoming a security specialized partner
C. steering customers toward the unique capabilities offered by on-premises security products
D. attending Selling Security for Partners role-based training
E. selling multiple services over multiple years
F. recommending high performance products to meet possible future needs
Correct Answer: BCD

QUESTION 5
Which options is the name of the process by which an organization\\’s license expiration dates are automatically aligned
for simple management?
A. blended elapse
B. co-termination
C. weighted usage
D. aggregated expiry
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 6
Which two functions are performed by the dedicated third radio in MR access points? (Choose two.)
A. WLAN controller
B. DHCP addressing
C. RF optimization (auto RF)
D. Site survey planning
E. wireless IPS (air marshal)
Correct Answer: CE

QUESTION 7
Which product is a Cisco cloud-managed product?
A. Cisco Prime infrastructure
B. Cisco Aironet wireless access point
C. Cisco Meraki MS series switch
D. Cisco ISR series router
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 8
Which two feature licenses (subscriptions) are available for the MX security appliances? (Choose two.)
A. Advanced Security
B. Essential
C. Defended
D. Comprehensive
E. Enterprise
Correct Answer: AE

QUESTION 9
Which Cisco series routers are recommended for a small branch or office having 1 to 10 users?
A. Cisco 1100 ISR and 4221 ISR Series
B. Cisco RV 320 and 890 ISR Series
C. Cisco 4221 ISR and 4321 ISR Series
D. Cisco 890 ISR and 1100 ISR Series
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 10
Why is a Cisco Meraki dashboard demo such a core and pivotal part of the customer engagement process?
A. It allows customers to see the ease of use and elegant design of the dashboard that leaves them wanting to learn
more.
B. It grants the presenter a chance to perform a feature parity comparison with any competing vendors.
C. Customers can explore and interact with the interface at their own pace through the specialist-guided demo
experience.
D. It educates and trains the customer to be confident in setting up and managing their own instance of dashboard at
the conclusion of the demo.
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 11
Which three characteristics of the use of a Cisco SMB router in a small-box retail establishment are true? (Choose
three.)
A. provides integrated security
B. requires a switch for wired LAN ports
C. has a large physical footprint
D. provides integrated wireless
E. creates a single point of failure
F. create complex management
Correct Answer: ADE

QUESTION 12
Which two products are considered a part of the Cisco Meraki full stack? (Choose two.)
A. Aironet wireless access points
B. Catalyst switches
C. MR wireless access points
D. UCS servers
E. MX security appliances
Correct Answer: CE

QUESTION 13
Which feature does the Cisco Catalyst 2960-L switch uniquely offer that competitors like HP, Juniper, and Dell do not
offer in their SMB-class switches?
A. persistent PoE
B. fanless operation
C. web GUI and CLI
D. PoE + (802.3at) support
Correct Answer: A

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